Mean Value Theorem
From Bolzano-Weierstrass to Roll’s theorem
Theorem(Bolzano-Weierstrass) Let ${x_n}$ is a sequence in an closed interval $[a,b]$, then there exists a convergent subsequence of ${x_n}$.
proof. Let $a_0=a$ and $b_0=b$. We will recursively define $a_i$ and $b_i$. First, we consider two intervals $[a_0,\frac{a_0+b_0}{2}]$ and $[\frac{a_0+b_0}{2},b_0]$. Since ${x_n}$ has infinitely many terms, one of the intervals, denoted by $I=[a_1,b_1]$, contains infinitely many terms of the sequence. We then can find the smallest integer $n_1$ such that $x_{n_1}$ is in $I$. By iterating the above process, we will get three sequences ${a_i}$, ${b_i}$, and ${x_{n_i}}$, where ${x_{n_i}}$ is a subsequence of ${x_n}$. Note that $a_i\leq x_i\leq b_i$ and \(\lim_{i\to\infty}a_i =\lim_{i\to\infty} b_i.\) By the squeeze theorem, $\displaystyle\lim_{i\to\infty}x_{n_i}$ exists.<div style="text-align: right;">∎</div>
Theorem(Weierstrass’s extreme value theorem) If $f(x)$ is a continuous function on a closed interval $[a,b]$, then $f(x)$ attains its local extreme values on $[a,b]$.
proof. For the sake of contradiction, we suppose we cannot find a maximum of $f$ on $[a,b]$. It is equivalent to say, for any positive integer $n$, we can find an $x_n\in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_n)>n$. By Bolzano-Weierstrass’s theorem, we have a convergent subsequence ${x_{n_i}}$ of ${x_n}$. Note that $f(x_{n_i})\geq n_i$, so $f(x_{n_i})\to\infty$ as $x_{n_i}\to x’$ for some $x’\in [a,b]$. This contradicts to the fact that $f(x)$ is continuous on $[a,b]$. Therefore, we must have a local maximum. Since $-f$ also satisfyies the assumption of this theorem, $-f$ has a local maximum in $[a,b]$, which implies $f$ has a local minimum in $[a,b]$.<div style="text-align: right;">∎</div>
Theorem(Fermat) If $f(x)$ is a continuous function on a closed interval with $f(c)$ an extreme values of $f$, and $f’(c)$ exists, then $f’(c)=0$.
Theorem(Fermat’s theorem in terms of critical points) If $f(x)$ is a continuous function on a closed interval with $f(c)$ an extreme values of $f$, then $f$ is a critical points. In particular, $\{x | f(x)\text{ is a local extreme}\}\subseteq\{x | x\text{ is a critical point of }f\}$. |
proof. Weierstrass’s theorem implies that such a $c$ exists. Thus, we only need to show that $f’(c)=0$. We suppose it is a local maximum, i.e. $f(c)\geq f(x)$ for all $x$ near $c$. We then have \(\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}\geq 0\) when $x<c$ and $x$ is near $c$. Thus, $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to c^-}\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}\geq 0$. On the other hand, we have \(\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}\leq 0\) when $x>c$ and $x$ is near $c$. Thus, $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to c^+}\frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}\leq 0$. Since we assume $f’(c)$ exists, the left limit has to be equal to the right limit, and we conclude that $f’(c)=0$.<div style="text-align: right;">∎</div>
Theorem(Roll) Suppose $f(x)$ satisfies the following three hypotheses:
- $f(x)$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$.
- $f’(x)$ exists on $(a,b)$.
- $f(a)=f(b)$. Then, there exists $c\in (a,b)$ such that $f’(c)=0$.
proof. Such a $c$ exists in $[a,b]$ by Fermat’s theorem. We only need to show that $c$ is not $a$ or $b$. Suppose $f$ is a constant function, then we have $f’(x)=0$ at any point in $(a,b)$. Otherwise, $f(a)$ and $f(b)$ cannot be a global maximum or minimum. Suppose it is not a globel maximum, then there exists $c\in(a,b)$ such that $f(c)$ is a local maximum and $f(c)>f(a)=f(b)$. Thus, we find a $c$ in the interial of $[a,b]$. Similar argument will work if we assume $f(a)$ and $f(b)$ is not a globle minimum.<div style="text-align: right;">∎</div>
Theorem(Mean value theorem) If $f(x)$ is continuous on $[a,b]$ and is differentiable on $(a,b)$, then there exists $c\in(a,b)$ such that \(f'(c)=\frac{f(a)-f(b)}{a-b}\).
proof. Let $g(x)=f(x)-f(a)-\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}(x-a)$. We note that $g(a)=g(b)=0$. By Roll’s theorem, there exists $c\in(a,b)$ such that $g’(c)=0$. Furthermore, $g’(x)=f’(x)-\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$, so $g’(c)=0$ implies $f’(x)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$.<div style="text-align: right;">∎</div>
These theorems exemplify the elegance of mathematics. In a cohesive progression, we observe the relationships among these fundamental statements: \(\begin{equation} \begin{array}{c} \text{Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem}\\\\ \Downarrow\\\\ \text{Weierestrass's extreme value theorem}\\\\ \Downarrow\\\\ \text{Fermat's theorem}\\\\ \Downarrow\\\\ \text{Roll's theorem}\\\\ \Downarrow\\\\ \text{Mean value theorem} \end{array} \end{equation}\)
Strategy of using MVT
Many applications of the mean value theorem (MVT) employ a strategy similar to the one used in proving MVT itself. This strategy typically involves defining a second function, denoted as $h(x)$, which incorporates the function of interest, $f(x)$, along with other variables. Subsequently, MVT is applied to $h(x)$ to derive the desired outcome for $f(x)$. To illustrate this concept, let’s delve into the following example.
Example. Show the following statement: <div id='question-question-calculus1-ch4-proof-mvt7'></div>
proof. <div id='answer-question-calculus1-ch4-proof-mvt7'></div></p><div style="text-align: right;">∎</div>
Of course, the approach outlined above is not the sole way to utilize the Mean Value Theorem. Another valuable application of this theorem is to directly derive useful inequalities. **Example.**
**proof.**If $f(x)$ is differentiable and $f’(x)\neq 1$ for all real numbers $x$, then $f$ has at most one fixed point.
We need to show that if $f$ has fixed points, then $f$ has at most one fixed point. Let $g(x)=f(x)-x$ where $g$ is also continuous and differentiable due to its construction. Then, it is equivalent to show that $g(x)=0$ has at most one solution. If there exists two solutions $a$ and $b$, then there exists a $c$ between $a$ and $b$ such that $g’(c)=0$ by mean value theorem. However, $g’(c)=0$ implies $f’(c)=1$, which contradicts to the assumption. Thus, we can conclude that $f(x)$ has at most one fixed point.
Let $0<a<b$. Show that $\dfrac{b-a}{b}<\ln\dfrac{b}{a}<\dfrac{b-a}{a}.$
Consider the function $f(x)=\ln(x)$ which is continuous and differentiable on $(0,\infty)$. By the mean value theorem, there exists a real number $c$ with $a<c<b$ such that \(\ln\left(\frac{b}{a}\right)=\ln(b)-\ln(a)=\frac{1}{c}(b-a).\) Note that $a<c<b$ implies $\frac{1}{a}>\frac{1}{c}>\frac{1}{b}$. Putting everything together, we have the desired conclusion.